Some comrades on Discord were saying that the USSR during Khrushchev’s time was putting down communist movements in Peru and India and supporting the reactionary Indian government. The Peru stuff is rather dubious considering that Fujimori rose to power during Gorby’s time, but the Khrushchevites started acting imperialist towards the rest of the Eastern Bloc. (Ulbricht was soooooo much better than Honecker as Honecker simped for the Khrushchevites). That comrade has some interesting opinions on China, such as that the CPC isn’t really socialist after the right-deviationist takeover by Deng. I think that the Go4 were better than Deng, and that Xi Jinping’s trying to clean up the mess made by Jiang and Hu.
I don’t know what he could have possibly done to support communists in India. The freedom movement led by the Indian National Congress was led by the wealthy, upper-caste, landlords and other kinds of opportunists. Despite that they had a mass following that no other movement that which lent them the legitimacy which allowed them to win the first election. The Indian people did not know that the Conngress was gonna shaft them with awful economic policies.
How do they say that Khruschev “put down” the Indian communists? I would have assumed USSR in this situation would have just recognised the elected government as legitimate and engaged in trade and diplomatic relations with them, which involved selling military equipment. Is this what they mean?