• jack [he/him, comrade/them]@hexbear.net
    link
    fedilink
    English
    arrow-up
    28
    ·
    1 year ago

    Isn’t this literally the justification that was given for the three fifths compromise?

    No. That was about slave states trying to get congressional representation for their enslaved populations. They wanted all slaves to count towards their population for the sake of proportioning congressional seats. Non-slave states (or states with relatively few slaves) wanted the slaves not to count because they had no democratic rights, and therefore would just inflate representation for the slaveholding class. 3/5ths compromise is how it got settled; 3/5ths off a state’s enslaved population would be counted for representation in the House.

    • robot_dog_with_gun [they/them]@hexbear.net
      link
      fedilink
      English
      arrow-up
      7
      ·
      1 year ago

      would be counted for their owners’ representation in the house.

      the us government was of and for white men, more people than white men were counted for any census and for portioning the house but that wasn’t representation for women, non-landowning men, slaves, minor children, or any natives who managed not to get kicked out of the area (the census might’ve skilled the latter)